Question Number 0011 Question: A 65 year old woman presents with a swollen, red, tender left lower limb. She has had surgery for a hip replacement 10 days ago. Ultrasound demonstrated a non-compressible left superficial femoral vein. What is the most appropriate management? a) Course of vancomycin
Correct Answer: E Explanation: Heparin should be administered Warfarin should be started on the evening of Day 1, and the dose adjusted to obtain an INR level of 2.0 - 3.0 Related Questions A post-partum woman presents with swelling herA 65 year old woman presents with a swollen, red, tender left lowerA 55 year old diabetic woman with recurrent footA 27 year old fashion model in the second trimester ofA 50 year old military man returns to the UK after a |
Labels: Heamatology, MRCP Part 1 MCQ, Sugery, USMLE 01